Learning the events, especially those in the life of Jacob, has illuminated allusions made later in Scripture. In a study on Hosea, for instance, it was helpful to be familiar with the proceedings at Mizpah and with Jacob's time in Paddan-aram (Hosea 5:1, 12:12).
We are cramming five chapters into the final meeting because back-to-school is looming, especially for those with children off to college.
So, I read chapter 46 last night in preparation and got hung up on its relation to Acts 7:14. If you don't know ... and you probably already do, but it's new to me ... Stephen mentions 75 people heading to Joseph's care in Egypt under Jacob but Genesis 46:20 tallies the descendants as 70. One of those perfect, symbolic biblical numbers, 10 by 7.
Turns out that Stephen got his Jewish history from the LXX which appends the following to Genesis 46:20 -
"And there were sons born to Manasses, which the Syrian concubine bore to him, even Machir. And Machir begot Galaad. And the sons of Ephraim, the brother of Manasses; Sutalaam, and Taam. And the sons of Sutalaam; Edom." (Breton)Five more descendants. Was Joseph a great grandfather, and Jacob a great-great grandfather?!1
How do my many study Bibles account for St. Stephen's misinformation? Let's start with the most conservative, my (new) Scofield, which says on Acts 7:14 -
"There is no real contradiction. 'The members of Jacob's family' numbered seventy, but the 'whole family' would include the wives of Jacob's sons."This note appears next to a box of enclosed text on 7:16 labeled "A Seeming Contradiction Explained," i.e., where Stephen says Jacob was buried.
Zondervan's Spirit of the Reformation Bible is next and says on Acts 7:14 -
"The Hebrew text of Exodus 1:5 states 'seventy.' But the Septuagint, [...] which Acts 7 basically follows, and the fragments of Exodus found among the Dead Sea Scrolls, read 'seventy-five.' The explanation of the number 'seventy-five' is to be found in the five additional descendants of Joseph included in the Greek translation of Gen. 46:20, which lists two sons of Manasseh, two sons of Ephraim and one grandson of Ephraim."No gross box in which contradictions are soothingly explained.
Ordinarily, I would classify Sproul's Reformation Study Bible (Ligonier) as more conservative than Zondervan's but he actually leaves the matter quite unresolved and messy. That is, the note on Acts 7:14 is identical to Zondervan's but the note on Gen. 46:27 says this:
"Such variations occasionally occur in the Greek Old Testament, and we don't always have the information necessary to explain them."A note on a previous verse, Gen. 46:10, reads "Perhaps an inadvertent scribal addition, this name is omitted in Num. 26:12 and 1 Chr. 4:24." Scribal additions? Two verses against the one? But Genesis is "older"?
Since I am saving the best for last, let's move now to a tried-and-true Catholic work, Navarre. This is the Pentateuch volume which I love and cherish. After explaining the problem and its origin, the conclusion is "In this as in other passages of the Bible we can clearly see that the Word of God is being expressed in human language and with the forms and devices that people normally use, sometimes overlooking numerical exactness." Oh, how poor Professor Enns might agree with thee!
And so, what does the jolly, ol' NAB say? Not much on Gen. 46, but on Acts 7, there's a blanket acknowledgment that Stephen's speech contains "a number of minor discrepancies" with the Old Testament data.
As for the LXX, this is from Karen Jobes and Moises Silva's highly accessible book, Invitation to the Septuagint:
Traditionally, the Orthodox churches have treated the Greek version as divinely inspired, although this issue is a matter of some debate among Orthodox scholars today. Those who hold to the inspiration of the Greek translation understand it to have superseded the Hebrew. An attendant theological corollary is that God has continued his revelation beyond the original authors of the Old Testament books.Then they quote Bishop Ware:
When this [LXX - tks] differs from the original Hebrew (which happens quite often), Orthodox [Christians - sic] believe that the changes in the Septuagint were made under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, and are to be accepted as part of God's continuing revelation.2None of this bothers me, of course. What really concerns me - and I wish someone would explain - is why the popular NIV doesn't follow the MT on the names in Gen. 46:13, 16 but instead follows, as their note says, the Samaritan Pentateuch and Syriac. Surely its editors don't think, like the Orthodox, that an ancient version has superseded the Hebrew?! Just another reason not to prefer the NIV.
1 I know someone will come at me with a numerical argument, demonstrating the plausibility of Joseph being a great grandfather at a ripe, young age. I also expected to come across an argument defending 66 books in the Old Testament based on the number in Genesis 46:26. Twelve tribes, twelve apostles, OK. 66 descendants, 66 books, eh, NO.
2 Does any Catholic believe that where the Vulgate differs from the Hebrew or Greek, the Vulgate is inspired? While the view given by Ware, Jobes and Silva might not be universal among the Orthodox, I think a potential convert would have to seriously consider this understanding before "crossing the Bosphorus," as they say.
8 comments:
"Does any Catholic believe that where the Vulgate differs from the Hebrew or Greek, the Vulgate is inspired?"
Yes. They do. I know some. The concept of updating the Vulgate with today's modern scholarship is an alien one to them.
As we know, Pius XII defined for us the "authenticity" of the Vulgate in DAS. It is authentic on the grounds of faith and morals. All other versions must be in line with it in those regards but it doesn't speak to textual accuracy.
I was trying to explain to someone the other day how Douay-Rheims onlyism is harmful (she was agreeing with me). She was talking about how Jacques Cousteau figured Jonah had been swallowed by a Whaleshark and not an actual whale. Apparently they tend to do swallow big objects and even people, and then when they can't digest them, vomit them.
I pointed out that if you take a Bible that says "whale" it doesn't make that Bible bad, its just how the translator understood the original word (or some other minor issue).
The Douay actually says:
"Now the Lord prepared a great fish to swallow up Jonas: and Jonas was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights."
So this is one instance where the text was "right" it would seem. That is, if Jacques knew what he was talking about...
Oh wait, one more thing. Maybe you can clear something up for me since you are such a scholar in these matters.
I had heard that Christ used the LXX in some places and the Hebrew scriptures in others, depending on his audience. (is this true?)
Would it not then, since Christ is the second person of the Trinity, and owns the Scriptures in a way we cannot understand fully, mean that on some level both the versions are inspired?
It seems to me that when we look at the New Testament and all of the references to the LXX that it would make sense for the Church to favor that version. But at the same time if we believe that only the originals are technically inspired then it seems there is a conflict.
But I don't think there is. I think its just that we do not yet have the correct understanding/knowledge to figure it all out yet.
The Book of Jonah is the litmus test with biblical fundamentalists.
I've never seen any reason to believe that the events narrated in the book are historical.
FWIW, Fr. Boadt says Jonah is about how not to be a prophet.
Something that gets raised often in Jim's Bible studies is what's the status of works cited by Scripture?
Paul quotes pagan slogans. Jude references the Assumption of Moses. Ezra quotes from Persian civil edicts.
Your question touches on this: Jesus quotes either the Hebrew or Greek Old Testament. Well, the conclusion is that inspiration isn't effective retroactively. Sacred Scripture quoting another text doesn't elevate that other text, in part or in whole.
That's my opinion but I'm willing to hear arguments to the contrary.
Sorry if I seem a little off right now. My 5-year-old got expelled from summer camp today ... and I'm upset for his sake, especially because he really doesn't understand the severity of these consequences.
"The Book of Jonah is the litmus test with biblical fundamentalists.
I've never seen any reason to believe that the events narrated in the book are historical.
FWIW, Fr. Boadt says Jonah is about how not to be a prophet."
I'm not a fundamentalist but I've never seen any reason to doubt its historicity. Maybe some people's opinions lean that way but there is no way to prove it did not happen. What we do know is that the Church founded by Christ says its scripture. So it is.
"Your question touches on this: Jesus quotes either the Hebrew or Greek Old Testament. Well, the conclusion is that inspiration isn't effective retroactively. Sacred Scripture quoting another text doesn't elevate that other text, in part or in whole."
Good point. But as far as being inspired retroactively, I didn't consider that it was. However, didn't Vatican II teach that anything that is good and true is from God anyway? I wonder if that maxim applies in the case of varying Scripture texts. After all for the great majority of Church history the Vulgate (more or less) text was accepted and so therefore was the Church in error? Certainly not.
"Sorry if I seem a little off right now. My 5-year-old got expelled from summer camp today ... and I'm upset for his sake, especially because he really doesn't understand the severity of these consequences."
I don't mean to pry, but what could a 5-year old do to get expelled from summer camp? He hasn't even reached the age of reason yet! (I jest to lighten your mood.)
I've never seen any reason to doubt its historicity.
So, if we read Jonah without falling off our chair, without laughing at its absurd exaggeration and its gross caricature of a prophet of the LORD - the most successful one of all time, mind you - are we reading Jonah faithfully?
Is it necessary to read Scripture in the same spirit as it was written? Is it even possible to so enter another time and place and culture as to laugh at what tickled them?
No, I don't think it's strictly necessary to read so sympathetically. And it might be fairly impossible.
The Christian can benefit from reading Jonah as straight history ... and many do. So long as they don't get bogged down pondering what type of fish swallowed Jonah, you see? The devil's in the details ... a devilish distraction ... explaining Scripture "up to" meeting our (mistaken) expectations. Fix the expectations, not Scripture. My opinion.
I think my post is about fixing expectations, my own. Scofield is about perpetuating inerrancy myths. I'm scandalized that Acts 7:14 reads 75 descendants and Gen. 46:20 reads 70. I hope you don't think I'm not. How could St. Stephen get it wrong?!
Once a kid gets a reputation, well, it's difficult to overturn it. Ah, the magical age of reason. Maybe I'll put a post together on him. Jeff is home today, helping me cope through my grief. It's like a death ... I feel that I'm mourning ...
"Scofield is about perpetuating inerrancy myths."
I don't own a Scofield, could you explain what you mean by that? Catholic believe in the inerrnacy of the Bible too, but do you mean something different?
I never thought any of my versions was the most textually accurate, nor do I take a fundamentalist view of Scripture.
"Is it necessary to read Scripture in the same spirit as it was written? Is it even possible to so enter another time and place and culture as to laugh at what tickled them?
No, I don't think it's strictly necessary to read so sympathetically. And it might be fairly impossible."
You are right. The Word of God isn't bound to a particular time. Its good for every age.
I don't own a Scofield, could you explain what you mean by that?
I'm a sucker for OUP Bibles.
Perhaps there are limitations of inerrancy that Scofield is wishing away?
(I find it moot to foist ideal qualities upon "The Originals.")
Shabbat shalom & pax Christi.
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